Cisco 350-701 SCOR Free Questions – New CCNP and CCIE Security Core

The Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies v1.0 (SCOR 350-701) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Core, and CCIE Security certifications.350-701 exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing and operating core security technologies including network security, cloud security, content security, endpoint protection and detection, secure network access, visibility and enforcements.

If you are going to prepare for your 350-701 SCOR exam, PassQuestion new released 350-701 SCOR exam questions should be your best choice, all questions are collected from real test which can help you pass your 350-701 SCOR exam easily.

View 350-701 SCOR Free Questions From PassQuestion Complete 350-701 Real Exam Questions

1. Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

 
 
 
 

2. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?

 
 
 
 

3. Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

4. Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

 
 
 
 

5. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are authenticating with dot1x or mab?

 
 
 
 

6. An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient address.

Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?

 
 
 
 

7. Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

8. Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?

 
 
 
 

9. An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.

What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?

 
 
 
 

10. What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

11. Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries?

 
 
 
 

12. Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

 
 
 
 

13. Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

 
 
 
 

14. What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?

 
 
 
 

15. Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?

 
 
 
 

16. Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

17. An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration. The engineer also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or WebAuth.

Which product meets all of these requirements?

 
 
 
 

18. Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?

 
 
 
 

19. Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

20. Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

 
 
 
 

21. Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

 
 
 
 

22. Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

23. Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

 
 
 
 

24. Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Identity Services Engine? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

25. Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

26. Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?

 
 
 
 

27. Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?

 
 
 
 

28. How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?

 
 
 
 

29. An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.

What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?

 
 
 
 

30. Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

 
 
 
 

31. Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view of activity?

 
 
 
 

32. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true

 
 
 
 

33. What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?.

 
 
 
 

34. Which API is used for Content Security?

 
 
 
 

35. Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

36. Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

37. What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

 
 
 
 

38. An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient address.

Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?

 
 
 
 

39. An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware.

Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this ransomware infection? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

40. Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?

 
 
 
 

41. Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

 
 
 
 

42. When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

43. Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

44. The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

 
 
 
 

45. In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?

 
 
 
 

46. Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

 
 
 
 

47. In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?

 
 
 
 

48. For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

49. What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?

 
 
 
 

50. Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

51. Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

 
 
 
 

52. Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?

 
 
 
 

53. What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?

 
 
 
 

54. An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE.

Which CoA type achieves this goal?

 
 
 
 

55. Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

56. A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1.

Which command achieves this goal?

 
 
 
 

57. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.

What is causing this problem?

 
 
 
 

58. Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

59. An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain.

What must be configured in order to prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?

 
 
 
 

60. What is a key difference between Cisco Firepower and Cisco ASA?

 
 
 
 

61. Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

62. What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?

 
 
 
 

63. Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?

 
 
 
 

64. Using Cisco Firepower’s Security Intelligence policies, upon which two criteria is Firepower block based? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

65. A mall provides security services to customers with a shared appliance. The mall wants separation of management on the shared appliance.

Which ASA deployment mode meets these needs?

 
 
 
 

66. An attacker needs to perform reconnaissance on a target system to help gain access to it. The system has weak passwords, no encryption on the VPN links, and software bugs on the system’s applications.

Which vulnerability allows the attacker to see the passwords being transmitted in clear text?

 
 
 
 

67. Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

68. A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for analysis. The network is congested and is affecting communication.

How will the Cisco ESA handle any files which need analysis?

 
 
 
 

69. What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

 
 
 
 

70. Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.

What is causing this issue?

 
 
 
 

71. What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

72. When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?

 
 
 
 

73. What is a feature of Cisco NetFlow Secure Event Logging for Cisco ASAs?

 
 
 
 

74. Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?

 
 
 
 

75. Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

 
 
 
 

76. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right.

77. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.

78. An organization has two machines hosting web applications. Machine 1 is vulnerable to SQL injection while machine 2 is vulnerable to buffer overflows.

What action would allow the attacker to gain access to machine 1 but not machine 2?

 
 
 
 

79. An organization is trying to improve their Defense in Depth by blocking malicious destinations prior to a connection being established. The solution must be able to block certain applications from being used within the network.

Which product should be used to accomplish this goal?

 
 
 
 

80. An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast packets have been flooding the network.

What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to address this issue?

 
 
 
 

81. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status.

What is the problem according to this command output?

 
 
 
 

82. Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

 
 
 
 

83. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.

84. In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint Protection Platform?

 
 
 
 

85. Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the deployment?

 
 
 
 

86. What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

 
 
 
 

87. Which type of API is being used when a controller within a software-defined network architecture dynamically makes configuration changes on switches within the network?

 
 
 
 

88. Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?

 
 
 
 

89. Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

 
 
 
 

90. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

 
 
 
 

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