Cisco 350-701 SCOR Free Questions – New CCNP and CCIE Security Core

1. Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

2. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?

3. Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two.)

4. Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

5. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are authenticating with dot1x or mab?

6. An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient address.

Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?

7. Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)

8. Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?

9. An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.

What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?

10. What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two.)

11. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to display this output?

12. What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?

13. Refer to the exhibit. An organization is using DHCP Snooping within their network. A user on VLAN 41 on a new switch is complaining that an IP address is not being obtained.

Which command should be configured on the switch interface in order to provide the user with network connectivity?

14. Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within the AWS public cloud?

15. Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco Anyconnect VPN?

16. An organization has two machines hosting web applications. Machine 1 is vulnerable to SQL injection while machine 2 is vulnerable to buffer overflows.

What action would allow the attacker to gain access to machine 1 but not machine 2?

17. What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)

18. When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security findings and vulnerabilities, which name is used?

19. How does Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection protect users?

20. An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious activity on the hosts, and is configuring the organization’s public cloud to send telemetry using the cloud provider’s mechanisms to a security device.

Which mechanism should the engineer configure to accomplish this goal?

21. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures command authorization for the admin5 user What is the admin5 user able to do on HQ_Router after this configuration?

22. What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?

23. how does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?

24. what is a key difference between Cisco Firepower and Cisco ASA?

25. What is an attribute of the DevSecOps process?

26. A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces and there is no err-disabled interface.

What is causing this problem?

27. which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?

28. What are two reasons for implementing a multifactor authentication solution such as Cisco Duo Security provide to an organization? (Choose two)

29. What are two rootkit types? (Choose two.)

30. What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

31. Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

32. Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two)

33. Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also provides an option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?

34. An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be preventec from quickly identifying all valid recipients.

What must be done on the Cisco ESA to accomplish this goal?

35. Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?

36. Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for endpoints? (Choose two)

37. What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce compromises, application risks, and data breaches in an environment that is not on-premise?

38. When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?

39. While using Cisco Firepower’s Security Intelligence policies, which two criteria is Firepower block based upon? (Choose two)

40. Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower NGIPS?

41. What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)

42. which two ways does a system administrator send web traffic transparently to the Cisco WSA? (Choose two)

43. What is the function of the Context Directory Agent?

44. What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?

45. Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is adding a new Cisco FTD device to their network and wants to manage it with Cisco FMG. The Cisco FTD is not behind a NAT device.

Which command is needed to enable this on the Cisco FTD?

46. Refer to the exhibit.

What will happen when the Python script is executed

47. An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application specific activity.

After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

48. organization has a Cisco ESA set up with policies and would like to customize the action assigned for violations. The organization wants a copy of the message to be delivered with a

message added to flag it as a DLP violation.

Which actions must be performed in order to provide this capability?

49. Which factor must be considered when choosing the on-premise solution over the cloud-based one?

50. Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to network resources?

51. Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two.)

52. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are authenticating with dot1x or mab?

53. Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

54. Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF standards to allow multiple security products from Cisco and other vendors to share data and interoperate with each other?

55. Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also provides an option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?

56. What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two.)

57. An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast packets have been flooding the network.

What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to address this issue?

58. What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a server?

59. In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?

60. What is the benefit of installing Cisco AMP for Endpoints on a network?

61. Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?

62. What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported over the TAXII protocol?

63. Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?

64. Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat? (Choose Two)

65. Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? {Choose two.)

66. Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two.)

67. What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?

68. A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on-premise. The company needs to be able to protect sensitive data throughout the full environment.

Which tool should be used to accomplish this goal?

69. An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE.

Which CoA type achieves this goal?

70. Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for endpoints? (Choose two.)

71. What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

72. What two mechanisms are used to redirect users to a web portal to authenticate to ISE for guest services? (Choose two.)

73. Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

74. An attacker needs to perform reconnaissance on a target system to help gain access to it. The system has weak passwords, no encryption on the VPN links, and software bugs on the system’s applications.

Which vulnerability allows the attacker to see the passwords being transmitted in clear text?

75. What must be used to share data between multiple security products?

76. How does Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection protect users?

77. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.

78. What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

79. Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

80. Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

81. Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two.)

82. What is the function of the Context Directory Agent?

83. Why is it important to have logical security controls on endpoints even though the users are trained to spot security threats and the network devices already help prevent them?

84. Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

85. Drag and drop the threats from the left onto examples of that threat on the right

86. What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce compromises, application risks, and data breaches in an environment that is not on-premise?

87. When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active FlexVPN configuration as opposed to DMVPN?

88. Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?

89. An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new endpoint group.

Which probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?

90. Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrustion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

91. A Cisco Firepower administrator needs to configure a rule to allow a new application that has never been seen on the network.

Which two actions should be selected to allow the traffic to pass without inspection? (Choose two.)

92. Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)

93. Which algorithm provides asymmetric encryption?

94. What provides the ability to program and monitor networks from somewhere other than the DNAC GUI?

95. An engineer is configuring 802.1X authentication on Cisco switches in the network and is using CoA as a mechanism.

Which port on the firewall must be opened to allow the CoA traffic to traverse the network?

96. Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two.)

97. Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?

98. Which two aspects of the cloud PaaS model are managed by the customer but not the provider? (Choose two.)

99. Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?

100. An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA.

Which Cisco ASA command must be used?

101. In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?

102. What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?

103. Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

104. An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing.

Which outbreak control method is used to accomplish this task?

105. What is the primary difference between an Endpoint Protection Platform and an Endpoint Detection and Response?

106. The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

107. Which Cisco platform ensures that machines that connect to organizational networks have the recommended antivirus definitions and patches to help prevent an organizational malware outbreak?

108. Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two.)

109. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the API do when connected to a Cisco security appliance?

110. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status.

What is the problem according to this command output?

111. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures command authorization for the admm5 user.

What is the admin5 user able to do on HQ_Router after this configuration?

112. Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?

113. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of authentication is in use?

114. An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two.)

115. Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the device?

116. How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?

117. What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?

118. Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

119. Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management Center?

120. An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.

What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?

121. What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployment models? (Choose two.)

122. Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?

123. Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)

124. What are two functions of secret key cryptography? (Choose two.)

125. What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

126. An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious activity on the hosts, and is configuring the organization’s public cloud to send telemetry using the cloud provider’s mechanisms to a security device.

Which mechanism should the engineer configure to accomplish this goal?

127. For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs?

128. How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?

129. The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?

130. An organization received a large amount of SPAM messages over a short time period. In order to take action on the messages, it must be determined how harmful the messages are and this needs to happen dynamically.

What must be configured to accomplish this?

131. Which attack type attempts to shut down a machine or network so that users are not able to access it?

132. Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

133. What is a commonality between DMVPN and FlexVPN technologies?

134. An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain.

What must be configured in order to prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?

135. What is a difference between DMVPN and sVTI?

136. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to display this output?

137. An organization has two machines hosting web applications. Machine 1 is vulnerable to SQL injection while machine 2 is vulnerable to buffer overflows.

What action would allow the attacker to gain access to machine 1 but not machine 2?

138. Which form of attack is launched using botnets?

139. Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

140. What features does Cisco FTDv provide over ASAv?

141. Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

142. Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)

143. When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security findings and vulnerabilities, which name is used?

144. 0.0.0 command on host A The tunnel is not being established to host B.

What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

145. What are two benefits of Flexible NetFlow records? (Choose two)

146. What is a characteristic of Firepower NGIPS inline deployment mode?

147. When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?

148. What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

149. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

150. Which two services must remain as on-premises equipment when a hybrid email solution is deployed? (Choose two.)

151. Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two.)

152. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are authenticating with dot1x or mab?

153. Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

154. Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF standards to allow multiple security products from Cisco and other vendors to share data and interoperate with each other?

155. Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also provides an option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?

156. What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two.)

157. An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast packets have been flooding the network .

What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to address this issue?

158. What is the purpose of the certificate signing request when adding a new certificate for a server?

159. In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?

160. What is the benefit of installing Cisco AMP for Endpoints on a network?

161. Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?

162. What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported over the TAXII protocol?

163. Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?

164. Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat? (Choose Two)

165. Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? {Choose two.)

166. Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two.)

167. What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?

168. A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on-premise. The company needs to be able to protect sensitive data throughout the full environment.

Which tool should be used to accomplish this goal?

169. An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE .

Which CoA type achieves this goal?

170. Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for endpoints? (Choose two.)

171. What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

172. What two mechanisms are used to redirect users to a web portal to authenticate to ISE for guest services? (Choose two.)

173. Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

174. An attacker needs to perform reconnaissance on a target system to help gain access to it. The system has weak passwords, no encryption on the VPN links, and software bugs on the system’s applications .

Which vulnerability allows the attacker to see the passwords being transmitted in clear text?

175. What must be used to share data between multiple security products?

176. How does Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection protect users?

177. Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.

178. What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

179. Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

180. Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

181. Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two.)

182. What is the function of the Context Directory Agent?

183. Why is it important to have logical security controls on endpoints even though the users are trained to spot security threats and the network devices already help prevent them?

184. Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

185. Drag and drop the threats from the left onto examples of that threat on the right

186. What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce compromises, application risks, and data breaches in an environment that is not on-premise?

187. When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active FlexVPN configuration as opposed to DMVPN?

188. Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?

189. An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new endpoint group.

Which probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?

190. Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrustion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

191. A Cisco Firepower administrator needs to configure a rule to allow a new application that has never been seen on the network .

Which two actions should be selected to allow the traffic to pass without inspection? (Choose two.)

192. Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)

193. Which algorithm provides asymmetric encryption?

194. What provides the ability to program and monitor networks from somewhere other than the DNAC GUI?

195. An engineer is configuring 802.1X authentication on Cisco switches in the network and is using CoA as a mechanism .

Which port on the firewall must be opened to allow the CoA traffic to traverse the network?

196. Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two.)

197. Which public cloud provider supports the Cisco Next Generation Firewall Virtual?

198. Which two aspects of the cloud PaaS model are managed by the customer but not the provider? (Choose two.)

199. Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?

200. An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA .

Which Cisco ASA command must be used?

201. In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?

202. What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?

203. Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

204. An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing .

Which outbreak control method is used to accomplish this task?

205. What is the primary difference between an Endpoint Protection Platform and an Endpoint Detection and Response?

206. The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

207. Which Cisco platform ensures that machines that connect to organizational networks have the recommended antivirus definitions and patches to help prevent an organizational malware outbreak?

208. Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two.)

209. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the API do when connected to a Cisco security appliance?

210. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status.

What is the problem according to this command output?

211. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures command authorization for the admm5 user .

What is the admin5 user able to do on HQ_Router after this configuration?

212. Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?

213. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of authentication is in use?

214. An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two.)

215. Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the device?

216. How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?

217. What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?

218. Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

219. Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management Center?

220. An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.

What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?

221. What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployment models? (Choose two.)

222. Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?

223. Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)

224. What are two functions of secret key cryptography? (Choose two.)

225. What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

226. An engineer needs behavioral analysis to detect malicious activity on the hosts, and is configuring the organization’s public cloud to send telemetry using the cloud provider’s mechanisms to a security device.

Which mechanism should the engineer configure to accomplish this goal?

227. For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs?

228. How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?

229. The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?

230. An organization received a large amount of SPAM messages over a short time period. In order to take action on the messages, it must be determined how harmful the messages are and this needs to happen dynamically.

What must be configured to accomplish this?

231. Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries?

232. Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

233. Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

234. What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?

235. Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?

236. Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two.)

237. An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration. The engineer also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or WebAuth.

Which product meets all of these requirements?

238. Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?

239. Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two.)

240. Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

241. Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

242. Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

243. Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

244. Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Identity Services Engine? (Choose two.)

245. Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

246. Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?

247. Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?

248. How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?

249. An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.

What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?

250. Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

251. Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view of activity?

252. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true

253. What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?.

254. Which API is used for Content Security?

255. Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two.)

256. Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)

257. What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

258. An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient address.

Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?

259. An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware.

Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this ransomware infection? (Choose two.)

260. Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?

261. Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

262. When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choose two.)

263. Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two.)

264. The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

265. In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?

266. Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

267. In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?

268. For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two.)

269. What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?

270. Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two.)

271. Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

272. Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?

273. What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?

274. An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE.

Which CoA type achieves this goal?

275. Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two.)

276. A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1.

Which command achieves this goal?

277. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.

What is causing this problem?

278. Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)

279. An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain.

What must be configured in order to prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?

280. What is a key difference between Cisco Firepower and Cisco ASA?

281. Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two.)

282. What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?

283. Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?

284. Using Cisco Firepower’s Security Intelligence policies, upon which two criteria is Firepower block based? (Choose two.)

285. A mall provides security services to customers with a shared appliance. The mall wants separation of management on the shared appliance.

Which ASA deployment mode meets these needs?

286. An attacker needs to perform reconnaissance on a target system to help gain access to it. The system has weak passwords, no encryption on the VPN links, and software bugs on the system’s applications.

Which vulnerability allows the attacker to see the passwords being transmitted in clear text?

287. Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)

288. A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for analysis. The network is congested and is affecting communication.

How will the Cisco ESA handle any files which need analysis?

289. What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

290. Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.

What is causing this issue?