New 200-301 CCNA Online Test Questions – Cisco Certified Network Associate

1. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

2. Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router1 use to Host A?

3. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence.

Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)

4. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

5. Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

6. In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

7. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

8. Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

9. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)

10. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

11. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

12. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

13. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

14. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

15. Which option about JSON is true?

16. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?

17. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?

18. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two)

19. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

20. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)

21. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.

Which type of security program is in place?

22. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?

23. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

24. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

25. Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

26. How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

27. In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

28. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

29. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment.

Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

30. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

31. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence.

Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

32. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

33. When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

34. Refer to the exhibit.

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

35. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

36. Which output displays a JSON data representation?

A)

B)

C)

D)

37. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

38. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC.

Which action is taken by the phone?

39. An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers.

Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

40. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

41. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

42. Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?

43. Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

44. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

45. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

46. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

47. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor.

What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

48. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

49. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

50. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

51. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

52. Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

53. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

54. Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

55. Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

56. Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

57. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

58. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router.

Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

59. Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1.

How is OSPF configured?

60. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

61. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

62. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1. The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path.

What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

63. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

64. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

65. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server.

Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

66. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable.

What is the result of this configuration?

67. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

68. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

69. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

70. A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF by default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

71. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services.

Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

72. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

73. Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

74. Refer to Exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path.

Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

75. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command provides this output?

76. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

77. Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

78. Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

79. Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

80. Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites.

Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two)

81. Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

82. Refer to exhibit.

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

83. When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

84. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

85. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

86. Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

87. Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

88. When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

89. Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration started to work as intended.

Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)

90. Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

91. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths.

Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

92. R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

93. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

94. Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

95. If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

96. Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

97. Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10 . 13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?

98. Refer to the Exhibit.

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1.

Which error must be corrected?

99. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK.

Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

100. Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

101. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

102. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

103. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown.

What is the correct configuration for SW2?

104. Refer to the exhibit.

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2.

What causes this behavior?

105. What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFV2? (Choose two)

106. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

107. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three)

108. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two)

109. What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

110. Which IPv6 address is valid?