New CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core 350-401 ENCOR Free Questions

1. What is a benefit of data modeling languages like YANG?

2. A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP.

Which deployment model meets this requirement?

3. Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?

4. On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?

5. When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

6. A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other devices are connected to it.

What is the cause of this issue?

7. Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

8. Which two methods are used by an AP that is typing to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

9. Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on types hypervisors?

10. Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

11. What are two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two)

12. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEthemet1 interface.

Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

13. What is the data policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

14. Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the EtherChannel issue between SW2 and SW3?

15. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration.

Which interface or interfaces are able to establish OSPF adjacency?

16. Refer to the exhibit.

What step resolves the authentication issue?

17. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec profiles.

Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two)

18. Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?

19. What is a VPN in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

20. Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.

21. Refer to the exhibit.

Communication between London and New York is down.

Which command set must be applied to resolve this issue?

22. What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute, memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

23. Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two)

24. Which data is properly formatted with JSON?

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

25. Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

26. Refer to the exhibit.

All switches are configured with the default port priority value.

Which two commands ensure that traffic from PC1 is forwarded over Gi1/3 trunk port between DWS1 and DSW2? (Choose two)

27. In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer?

28. Which two network problems indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two)

29. In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine?

30. A customer has completed the installation of a Wi-Fi 6 greenfield deployment at their new campus. They want to leverage Wi-Fi 6 enhanced speeds on the trusted employee WLAN. To configure the employee WLAN, which two Layer 2 security policies should be used? (Choose two)

31. Which outcome is achieved with this Python code?

client.connect (ip, port=22,username=usr, password=pswd)

stdin, stdout, stderr = client.exec_command(‘show ip bgp 192.168.10100 bestpathn’)

print(stdout)

32. What is YANG used for?

33. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change ensures that R1 is the active gateway whenever it is in a functional state for the 172.30.110.0/24 network?

34. Refer to the exhibit.

Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

35. An engineer creates the configuration below.

Drag and drop the authentication methods from the left into the order of priority on the right. Not all options are used.

36. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two facts does the device output confirm? (Choose two)

37. Based on the output below, which Python code shows the value of the “upTime” key?

38. Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two)

39. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to R1 to enable R1 to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?

40. The following system log message is presented after a network administrator configures a GRE tunnel:

Why is Tunnel 0 disabled?

41. What is provided by the Stealth watch component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution?

42. How does Protocol Independent Multicast function?

43. Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial?

44. Which technology does VXLAN use to provide segmentation for Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic?

45. A company has an existing Cisco 5520 HA cluster using SSO. An engineer deploys a new single Cisco Catalyst 9800 WLC to test new features. The engineer successfully configures a mobility tunnel between the 5520 cluster and 9800 WLC. Clients connected to the corporate WLAN roam seamlessly between access points on the 5520 and 9800 WLC. After a failure on the primary 5520 WLC, all WLAN services remain functional; however clients cannot roam between the 5520 and 9800 controllers without dropping their connection.

Which feature must be configured to remedy the issue?

46. What are two methods of ensuring that the multicast RPF check passes without changing the unicast routing table? (Choose two)

47. What is the result when an active route processor fails in a design that combines NSF with SSO?

48. What is a benefit of a virtual machine when compared with a physical server?

49. What is the wireless received signal strength indicator?

50. Which controller is capable of acting as a STUN server during the onboarding process of Edge devices?

51. What is the process for moving a virtual machine from one host machine to another with no downtime?

52. What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)

53. Which method should an engineer use to deal with a long-standing contention issue between any two VMs on the same host?

54. What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric?

55. What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?

56. Refer to the exhibit.

R1(config)#ip sla 1

R1(config-ip-sla)#icmp-echo 172.20.20.2 source-interface FastEthernet1/0 R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#timeout 5000 R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#frequency 10

R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#threshold 500

R1(config)#ip sla schedule 1 start-time now life forever

R1(config)#track 10 ip sla 1 reachability

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.20.20.2

After implementing the configuration 172.20.20.2 stops replaying to ICMP echoes, but the default route fails to be removed.

What is the reason for this behavior?

57. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna is show on the radiation patterns?

58. Drag and drop characteristics of PIM dense mode from the left to the right.

59. Refer to the exhibit.

Edge-01

track 10 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 line-protocol

!

interface GigabitEthernet0/1

ip address 10.104.110.2 255.255.255.0

vrrp 10 ip 10.104.110.100

vrrp 10 priority 120

Edge-02

interface GigabitEthernet0/1

ip address 10.104.110.3 255.255.255.0

vrrp 10 ip 10.104.110.100

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02.

Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

Option A

Edge-01(config)#interface G0/1

Edge-01(config-if)#vrrp 10 track 10

decrement 10

Option B

Edge-02(config)#interface G0/1

Edge-02(config-if)#vrrp 10 track 10

decrement 30

Option C

Edge-02(config)#interface G0/1

Edge-02(config-if)#vrrp 10 track 10

decrement 10

Option D

Edge-01(config)#interface G0/1

Edge-01(config-if)#vrrp 10 track 10

decrement 30

60. Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

61. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

62. When does a stack master lose its role?

63. What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

64. After a redundant route processor failure occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables?

65. What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?

66. Which two southbound interfaces originate from Cisco DNA Center and terminate at fabric underlay switches? (Choose two)

67. What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

68. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?

69. What is a characteristic of a next-generation firewall?

70. Which measure is used by an NTP server to indicate its closeness to the authoritative time source?

71. Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD – Access fabric? (Choose two)

72. Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two)

73. Drag and drop the virtual component from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

74. How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

75. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the output confirm about the switch’s spanning tree configuration?

76. A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC -5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes.

Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

77. What is a characteristic of para-virtualization?

78. Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.

79. A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

* FHRP redundancy

* multivendor router environment

* IPv4 and IPv6 hosts

Which protocol does the design include?

80. Refer to the exhibit.

What happens to access interfaces where VLAN 222 is assigned?

81. Which solution do IaaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

82. What is a characteristic of MACsec?

83. Which unit measures the power of a radio signal with reference to 1 milliwatt?

84. A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.

Which design facilities a migrate from a traditional campus design to a programmer fabric designer?

85. Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment?

86. What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment?

87. What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose two)

88. In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it.

Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

89. Which PAgP mode combination prevents an EtherChannel from forming?

90. Refer to the exhibit.

A port channel is configured between SW2 and SW3. SW2 is not running Cisco operating system. When all physical connections are made, the port channel does not establish.

Based on the configuration excerpt of SW3, what is the cause of the problem?

91. Refer to the exhibit.

After an engineer configures an EtherChannel between switch SW1 and switch SW2, this error message is logged on switch SW2.

Based on the output from SW1 and the log message received on Switch SW2, what action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

92. Refer to exhibit.

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches. All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server.

Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?

93. Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch. However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch.

Which command meets this requirement?

94. Refer to the exhibit.

Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3.

Which configuration corrects the issue?

95. Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

96. Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?

97. Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true?

98. What the role of a fusion in an SD-Access solution?

99. Which statement about a fabric access point is true?

100. On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD -Access fabric?

101. Which description of an SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true?

102. Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

103. When a wired client connects to an edge switch in an SDA fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network?

104. What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

105. Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?

106. In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?

107. What is the role of the vsmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment?

108. In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored?

109. Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD – Access architecture?

110. Drag and drop the solutions that comprise Cisco Cyber Threat Defense from the left onto the objectives they accomplish on the right.

111. What are two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two)

112. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEthemet1 interface.

Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

113. What is the data policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

114. Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the EtherChannel issue between SW2 and SW3?

115. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration.

Which interface or interfaces are able to establish OSPF adjacency?

116. Refer to the exhibit.

What step resolves the authentication issue?

117. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec profiles.

Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two)

118. Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?

119. What is a VPN in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

120. Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the orchestration tools that they describe on the right.

121. Refer to the exhibit.

Communication between London and New York is down.

Which command set must be applied to resolve this issue?

122. What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute, memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

123. Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two)

124. Which data is properly formatted with JSON?

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

125. Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

126. Refer to the exhibit.

How to make DSW1 the primary root for VLAN 10? (Choose two)

127. In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer?

128. Which two network problems indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two)

129. In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine?

130. A customer has completed the installation of a Wi-Fi 6 greenfield deployment at their new campus. They want to leverage Wi-Fi 6 enhanced speeds on the trusted employee WLAN.

To configure the employee WLAN, which two Layer 2 security policies should be used? (Choose two)

131. Which outcome is achieved with this Python code?

client.connect (ip, port=22,username=usr,password=pswd)

stdin,stdout,stderr = client.exec_command(‘show ip bgp 192.168.10100 bestpathn’)

print(stdout)

132. What is YANG used for?

133. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change ensures that R1 is the active gateway whenever it is in a functional state for the 172.30.110.0/24 network?

134. Refer to the exhibit.

Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

135. An engineer creates the configuration below.

Drag and drop the authentication methods from the left into the order of priority on the right. Not all options are used.

136. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two facts does the device output confirm? (Choose two)

137. Based on the output below, which Python code shows the value of the “upTime” key?

138. Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two)

139. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to R1 to enable R1 to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?

140. The following system log message is presented after a network administrator configures a GRE tunnel:

Why is Tunnel 0 disabled?

141. After a redundant route processor failure occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables?

142. What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?

143. Which two southbound interfaces originate from Cisco DNA Center and terminate at fabric underlay switches? (Choose two)

144. What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

145. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?

146. What is a characteristic of a next-generation firewall?

147. Which measure is used by an NTP server to indicate its closeness to the authoritative time source?

148. Which two resu lts occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD – Access fabric? (Choose two)

149. Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two)

150. Drag and drop the virtual component from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

151. How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

152. Refer to the exhibit.

What does the output confirm about the switch‟s spanning tree configuration?

153. A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC -5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi -Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes.

Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

154. What is a characteristic of para-virtualization?

155. Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.

156. A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

* FHRP redundancy

* multivendor router environment

* IPv4 and IPv6 hosts

Which protocol does the design include?

157. Refer to the exhibit.

What happens to access interfaces where VLAN 222 is assigned?

158. Which solution do IaaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

159. What is a characteristic of MACsec?

160. Which unit measures the power of a radio signal with reference to 1 milliwatt?

161. A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.

Which design facilities a migrate from a traditional campus design to a programmer fabric designer?

162. Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment?

163. What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment?

164. What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose two)

165. In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules an administrator must temporally remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it.

Which mechanism ensure that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

166. Which PAgP mode combination prevents an Etherchannel from forming?

167. Refer to the exhibit.

A port channel is configured between SW2 and SW3. SW2 is not running Cisco operating system. When all physical connections are made, the port channel does not establish.

Based on the configuration excerpt of SW3, what is the cause of the problem?

168. Refer to the exhibit.

After an engineer configures an EtherChannel between switch SW1 and switch SW2, this error message is logged on switch SW2.

Based on the output from SW1 and the log message received on Switch SW2, what action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

169. Refer to exhibit.

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches. All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server.

Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?

170. Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch. However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch.

Which command meets this requirement?

171. Refer to the exhibit.

Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3.

Which configuration corrects the issue?

172. Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

173. Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?

174. Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true?

175. What the role of a fusion in an SD-Access solution?

176. Which statement about a fabric access point is true?

177. On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?

178. Which description of an SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true?

179. Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

180. When a wired client connects to an edge switch in an SDA fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network?

181. What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

182. Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?

183. In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?

184. What is the role of the vsmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment?

185. In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored?

186. Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD-Access architecture?

187. In an SD-WAN deployment, which action in the vSmart controller responsible for?

188. In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints?

189. What is one fact about Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployments?

190. What is the function of the fabric control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

191. In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings?

192. Which control plane protocol is used between Cisco SD-WAN routers and vSmart controllers?

193. In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one access point to another on a different access switch using a single WLC?

194. Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD -Access deployment?

195. Which tunneling technique is used when designing a Cisco SD -Access fabric data plane?

196. Which statement about the default QoS configuration on a Cisco switch is true?

197. Which QoS mechanism will prevent a decrease in TCP performance?

198. Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network?

199. Which marking field is used only as an internal marking within a router?

200. How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?

201. An engineer is describing QoS to a client.

Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two)

202. During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network.

Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?

203. Which QoS queuing method transmits packets out of the interface in the order the packets arrive?

204. Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?

205. Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true? (Choose two)

206. How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?

207. What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?

208. How does the RIB differ from the FIB?

209. What is the difference between CEF and process switching?

210. Drag and drop the solutions that comprise Cisco Cyber Threat Defense from the left onto the objectives they accomplish on the right.

211. Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

212. Refer to the exhibit.

Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

213. What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?

214. Which requirement for an Ansible-managed node is true?

215. A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other client devices are connected to it.

What is the cause of this issue?

216. Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.)

217. Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?

218. Which NGFW mode blocks flows crossing the firewall?

219. Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite?

220. How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

221. Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?

222. Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

223. Which two protocols are used with YANG data models? (Choose two.)

224. Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session?

225. The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters.

– The first method for authentication is TACACS

– If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials.

Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.

B.

C.

D.

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

226. Which statement about multicast RPs is true?

227. To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller.

Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?

228. Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

229. An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled. Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN.

Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on their OUIs?

230. Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

A.

B.

C.

D.

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

231. A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging output on the terminal is interrupting the command typing process.

Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two.)

232. Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

233. Which statements are used for error handling in Python?

234. What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in a data center environment? (Choose two.)

235. Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.)

236. What is a benefit of data modeling languages like YANG?

237. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the JSON syntax that is formed from the data?

238. Based on this interface configuration, what is the expected state of OSPF adjacency?

239. Refer to the exhibit.

Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection. The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An engineer enters the spanning-tree port-priority 32 command on G0/1 on SW2, but the port remains blocked.

Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Link2 to resolve the issue?

240. Which JSON syntax is valid?

241. What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)

242. When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

243. Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP version is changed from 1 to 2?

244. Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel?

245. Refer to this output.

R1# *Feb 14 37:09:53.129: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface GigabitEthernet0/1, changed state to up What is the logging severity level?

246. Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102.0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails?

247. Which PAgP mode combination prevents an EtherChannel from forming?

248. If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router?

249. Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network?

250. Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

251. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the configuration in this WLAN security setting, which method can a client use to authenticate to the network?

252. Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two.)

253. Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

254. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must block all traffic from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list EGRESS in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the router. However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet.

Which explanation of this behavior is true?

255. Which two methods are used by an AP that is trying to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

256. Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

257. Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type2 hypervisor?

258. A client with IP address 209.165.201.25 must access a web server on port 80 at 209.165.200.225. To allow this traffic, an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting to the web servers.

Which statement allows this traffic?

259. In OSPF, which LSA type is responsible for pointing to the ASBR router?

260. Refer to the exhibit.

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches. All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server.

Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?

261. Which statement about a fabric access point is true?

262. Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol maximizes uplink utilization and minimizes the amount of configuration that is necessary?

263. Which standard access control entry permits traffic from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?

264. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes EBGP connected neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?

265. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna do the radiation patterns present?

266. Which method creates an EEM applet policy that is registered with EEM and runs on demand or manually?

267. An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy.

Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?

268. Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

269. A network is being migrated from IPv4 to IPv6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100% IPv6 enabled.

In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collectors, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?

270. Which statement about TLS is true when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices?

271. What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose Two)

272. Which data modeling language is commonly used by NETCONF?

273. Refer to the exhibit.

Tunnel-Private-Group-Id (81): 15

Tunnel-Medium-Type (65): IEEE-802(6)

Tunnel-Type (64): VLAN (13)

A wireless client is connecting to FlexAP1 which is currently working standalone mode.

The AAA authentication process is returning the following AVPs:

Which three behaviors will the client experience? (Choose three.)

274. What would be the preferred way to implement a loopless switch network where there are 1500 defined VLANs and it is necessary to load the shared traffic through two main aggregation points based on the VLAN identifier?

275. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures CoPP and enters the show command to verify the implementation.

What is the result of the configuration?

276. Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?

277. Which action is a function of VTEP in VXLAN?

278. What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)

279. On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?

280. How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?

281. How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?

282. Which characteristic distinguishes Ansible from Chef?

283. You are configuring a controller that runs Cisco IOS XE by using the CLI.

Which three configuration options are used for 802.11w Protected Management Frames? (Choose three.)

284. What is a benefit of data modeling languages like YANG?

285. What do Cisco DNA southbound APIs provide?

286. If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router?